Here is a scenario I’ve seen a half-dozen or so times. A homeowner hires a professional property manager to rent out the owner’s house after a move out-of-state. The management contract contains fairly standard language stating that if the Owner sells the property to a tenant, the Property Manager is entitled to a sales commission as the procuring source. The owner at some point decides to sell, hires an agent, and either via TOPA or directly, the tenant purchases.